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Keep in mind that the American Founding Fathers weren't a monolithic bloc, so they had differing opinions on how the government should be set up. There's a lot of difference between, say, Thomas Paine and Alexander Hamilton. Like most revolutions the American one went through several distinct phases. Early on there was a lot more space for radical demagogues like Paine, but once the conflict was over guys like George Washington and Alexander Hamilton reversed course and imposed a stronger central government that would be better able to protect property rights. Its important to keep in mind that the United States originally had a different constitution, the so called 'Articles of Confederation'. The modern constitution was adopted roughly a decade after the revolution because a series of populist uprisings was threatening the position of the ruling class. If you want to know more you should look up Shays Rebellion. So remember that the Constitution as it exists was heavily modified based on experience. The Founders weren't just using history as a guide, they were also specifically looking at the last ten or so years when they decided on a strong central government with only limited democratic participation. They were also looking roughly a century into the past and using the example of the English Civil Wars. During the midst of the Civil Wars there was a huge upsurge of popular and proto-socialist mobilization amongst the masses. Groups such as the Diggers, the Levellers, the Quakers and the Fifth Monarchy Men advocated all sorts of doctrines ranging from religious fundamentalism to something closely approximating early modern communism. If you're interested in that era I'd suggest starting here, as it will give you a sense of the sort of class consciousness that the Founders were afraid of. When the Founders gathered together to discuss the modern constitution that was going to replace the Articles of Confederation they held a series of secret debates that provide some pretty bald faced explanations of why they didn't trust full democracy. Here, for example, is James Madison explaining why he thought Senators should serve long terms: James Madison posted:The man who is possessed of wealth, who lolls on his sofa, or rolls in his carriage, cannot judge of the wants or feelings of the day laborer. The government we mean to erect is intended to last for ages. The landed interest, at present, is prevalent; but in process of time, when we approximate to the states and kingdoms of Europe; when the number of landholders shall be comparatively small, through the various means of trade and manufactures, will not the landed interest be overbalanced in future elections, and unless wisely provided against, what will become of your government? In England, at this day, if elections were open to all classes of people, the property of the landed proprietors would be insecure. An agrarian law would soon take place [NOTE: By agrarian law he means a redistribution of property in favour of the poor]. If these observations be just, our government ought to secure the permanent interests of the country against innovation. Landholders ought to have a share in the government, to support these invaluable interests, and to balance and check the other. They ought to be so constituted as to protect the minority of the opulent against the majority. The senate, therefore, ought to be this body; and to answer these purposes, they ought to have permanency and stability. Various have been the propositions; but my opinion is, the longer they continue in office, the better will these views be answered. As other posters have pointed out the Founders also paid a lot of attention to the ancient world, especially Greece and Rome. Democratic states like Athens were generally perceived to be unstable and short lived. Others have mentioned the invasion of Syracuse, which came about because a popular demogogue named Alcibiades essentially dazzled the Athenian population into launching a massive invasion of a foreign country even though the Athenians were already locked in a very serious conflict with Sparta (the Athenians ultimately lost both conflicts, and Alcibiades turned traitor, abandoned the invasion of Syracuse and joined the Spartans after some of his political opponents at home tried to put him on trial). Ultimately their aversion to democracy was a mixture of historical experience and a heavy dose of ruling class anxiety. When the property owning class participates in a revolution they always run a serious risk: how do you mobilize the masses against the sovereign without inadvertently threatening your own position. If the King's property rights over the government are being invalidated, how do you preserve your own property rights? The modern constitution was crafted, in large part, to address those concerns. That having been said I think there was also a genuine concern that a democracy would lead to fractious infighting that might result in political collapse. It wasn't just that they feared that the majority would tyrannize the minority, they also feared that a democracy would be so weak that it would be subject to predations from powerful countries like Britain and France.
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# ¿ Jul 30, 2014 18:55 |
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# ¿ Apr 23, 2024 22:48 |
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It's absolutely not the case that professional politicians are always "capable of quickly getting the necessary information about any subject". This is true for some types of information but it certainly isn't true for all or even most types of information. Professional politicians (or, more likely, trained civil servants or contractors, since these days most professional politicians have to send most of their time getting and staying elected rather than mastering difficult policy issues) may be better suited for dealing with stuff like managing inflation, dealing with the specific details of regulation or managing public utilities. On the other hand there's no reason to think politicians are going to automatically know better than local people on stuff like where to locate a new public park or school. Much of the important information in our society is not immediately "legible" to the state and it's officials. To interact with the area over which it governs the state must create a simplify and codify information so that it can be processed bureaucratically. Such a process will inevitably face the danger that it leaves out useful or important information known to locals. Often times the attempts of professionals to make a given area of action 'legible' involves simplifications that end up having serious unforeseen consequences. For instance: The Trouble with the View From Above, James C. Scott posted:Legibility and Power Think of some of the grand 'high modernist' projects of the 20th century, such as urban planning. Over the course of the 20th century technocratic politicians in North America redesigned many cities to be more 'efficient' and 'modern'. What that meant in practice was that communities were (re)designed to be centered around cars. Neighborhoods that had previously been dense, walkable and of mixed use were replaced with neighborhoods that served a single function such as residential, commercial or industrial, connected with big super highways that cut existing communities in half and often lead to the creation of low income ghettos. Often these projects were opposed by locals who had a much better grasp of what they wanted from their communities. You might say that this is just an example of politicians being corrupted by vested interests but that wasn't always the case. Many of them really did think that communities would be better off if they were transformed into auto-dependent single use neighborhoods. However, subsequent history has demonstrated that there were massive social and environmental problems with this model. Any proper constitutional arrangement should balance different perspectives and make some room for local knowledge and input. A larger government can be a useful counter force to excessive NIMBYism but I'm honestly sort of shocked that people would actually think that its some kind of rule that politicians are always going to know better than everyone else. That's a premise so absurd that I'd think even a couple minutes of consideration would cure you of it.
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# ¿ Jul 31, 2014 17:59 |
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This is a bit of side note but its also worth pointing out that "democracy" and "voting" are not synonymous. In ancient Athens, generally seen as the originator of democracy, voting was mistrusted for important positions because the wealthiest citizens would consistently win elections. Important political positions were often selected by casting random lots. So while voting and democracy obviously have some connections they can also sometimes be seen as working at cross purposes. And while we're making side notes, I cannot emphasize this enough: Plato's Republic was not a political document. Repeat: Plato's Republic is not a political document. The city described in the Republic is clearly and explicitly a metaphor for the human soul. Plato repeatedly drops very strong and unsubtle hints that the city he is describing would not be a desirable or functional political system. People who cite the Republic as a document advocating elitist government are utterly failing to understand the purpose of the document, which is a meditation on the individual's soul. computer parts posted:Or maybe the same way that a professor of climate change knows more about ways to reduce ecological impact than a random person? That's an incredibly specific example that you're using. The poster Gantolandon was responding to was specifically saying that professional politicians are always going to know better on all subjects.
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# ¿ Jul 31, 2014 18:37 |
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Gantolandon posted:
Regardless of what Plato intended, the Republic is regularly cited as the ur-document advocating elitist government, so your statement made complete sense. I just thought that for the general edification of the thread it'd worthwhile to point out that Plato is widely misunderstood on this point. I don't think it in nay way effects the substance of what you were saying.
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# ¿ Jul 31, 2014 19:12 |
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computer parts posted:That's the point, they let the agency determine what's reasonable. Yeah, and sometimes that works well and sometimes it doesn't. It completely depends on context. I think the key take away here is that until you investigate the specific context of each situation there is no basis for claiming that there's some kind of universal rule say elite or technocratic decision makers will know better than the man on the street. There are many examples where elites made terrible blunders. Fetishizing elite decision making as some kind of universally superior system is just intellectual laziness. Without specifying what domain of policy we're talking about its meaningless to claim that elites are better or worse at making decisions.
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# ¿ Jul 31, 2014 19:15 |
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Xander77 posted:No. You misunderstood the quote entirely. That is an absurd argument. You are better at your job if you're actually better at your job. Simply holding a position in no way makes you automatically more qualified. quote:No more, no less. Politics are the job / career of the politician and... etc, you got my point. Yeah, and a really important control mechanism is recognizing that often times the government doesn't have sufficient information to make decisions unless it rigorously consults the people who will be effected by the decision. Xander77 posted:
I never said "politicians make mistakes, ergo they are useless". I honestly don't know where you got the impression I was making an argument like that. Everybody makes mistakes. The point is that in some cases a career politician or bureaucrat will make more mistakes than they otherwise would if they ignore the input of regular people. quote:That these mistakes may be paid for in a democratic institution that holds them accountable is a touch more relevant. If you read any of the Yes, I think we're all aware of the basic theory behind checks and balances and representative democracy. That has no bearing on our disagreemnt. Our disagreement is about whether rich and well educated politicians always make better policy, an argument that you've offered no supporting evidence for. quote:As to the forest making example - I hope that's just a pet issue of yours, because I'm not sure how it was relevant to anything. Because its an example of how top down decision making that ignores local input can easily lead to perverse results. The example of scientific forestry is also an example of how politicians and other officials of the state must necessarily make information bureaucratically "legible" before they can make use of such information. Since the process of making something legible to a modern state will often end up excluding information that is actually quite important, this should cast doubt on your ridiculous claim that politicians are universally better equipped to make decisions about any and all policy. quote:Ah. So, just rubbish understanding of how thing work. Fair enough. This coming from the guy who just made a universal claim about how rich people who go to university will always make better decisions "by definition", which is a literal misunderstanding of what it means to say something is true "by definition". Go look up the word politician in any dictionary and show me where it says that the word necessarily means the person will be better at decision making. If you're going to lob around insults then maybe you should scrutinize your own very sloppy arguments before hitting the post button. Helsing fucked around with this message at 20:29 on Jul 31, 2014 |
# ¿ Jul 31, 2014 20:19 |
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It seems like the people who are against 'more democracy' are assuming that we'd have basically the same culture and political institutions as we currently do, but with more decisions determined by referendums. The people advocating for 'more democracy' seem to be assuming some kind of big cultural shift that would make people more engaged. Personally I think there are definitely imaginable scenarios where there would be "too much democracy". I'm a big believer, for instance, in some degree of judicial independence, and I think it's important to have some basic rights that are spelled out in a constitution of some kind and which aren't easily changeable due to popular pressure. However, I think that more democracy would be a great thing if it was implemented in the right way. I don't think we necessarily want to just have people voting on everything, but I do think that we could open up some of our institutions to greater popular input. I also think that necessarily any discussion of 'more democracy' needs to touch on workplace democracy, which is something that hasn't really entered the discussion so far. As long as society expects most adult citizens to be working 35+ hours a week I think that giving people a greater say over their economic situations, perhaps through expanded union representation, would be one of the most important democratic reforms we could implement.
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# ¿ Aug 5, 2014 19:06 |
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asdf32 posted:Could you or Helsing talk about the actual policies you think would be different if we had more democracy right now? I don't consider 'voting' to be synonymous with democracy. Democracy is a system where political power is very widely distributed amongst the population rather than being concentrated in the hands of a small elite. Voting on things is just a tool for achieving that goal, it shouldn't be confused with the objective itself. Personally I think the most obvious democratic reforms toward that goal would be a guaranteed minimum income, universal union membership for all workers (or some equivalent in situations where workplace or industrial unions don't make sense), guaranteed and generous retirement pensions, a guarantee of dignified and useful work for anyone willing to take the job, universal and comprehensive healthcare including dental and mental health, nationalization of finance and other major utilities. On the other end I think there should be extremely high income taxes, 90% or more on the top brackets, and more broadly speaking, a government genuinely dedicated to tackling and limiting anything but the most superficial economic inequality. If I had to pick one of those policies I'd probably focus on unions. All workers should be guaranteed some form of collective representation that is actually effective and comprehensive. I'd also be in favour of substantial union reforms: no one in a union should earn substantially more than the actual workers of the union, and union officials should be easy to recall so that the bureaucracy doesn't become disconnected from the rank and file workers. I think these policies would have the effect of redistributing political power more widely and therefore would be a good place to start. Note most of them have only a limited connection voting. I think the key here is to empower citizens to be better able to take care of themselves and their interests. Once we'd reached that baseline we'd be better positioned to think about whether specific areas of policy like policing, urban planning, economic policy, international affairs, etc. could or should be opened up to more popular participation. quote:I think existing democracies do a decent job tracking public will. Yeah, but you seem to define this in a tautological way. You start out with the assumption that our voting system is good at representing the popular will, ergo you assume any outcome of the system must by definition be representative of the popular will.
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# ¿ Aug 7, 2014 20:50 |
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asdf32 posted:No, polls. Polls are the best we have for judging public will and broadly speaking I don't think polls differ from actual policy that much. Polls tend to show that the wealthy have different policy preferences than the average citizen and that politicians and state policy is more responsive to the desires of the wealthy. Politicians on an individual level also tend to be more responsive to their wealthiest constituents. Here, for instance, is a study on the responsiveness of US senators to their constituents in the late 1980s and early 1990s. The methodology here is somewhat crude and clearly points to a complicated figure, but the basic take away is that while senators were found to be responsive to the desires of middle and upper income constituents "the views of low-income constituents were utterly irrelevant" (p. 14). From the abstract: Economic INequality and Political Representation, Larry M. Bartels posted:I examine the differential responsiveness of U.S. senators to the preferences of wealthy, middle-class, and poor constituents. My analysis includes broad summary measures of senators' voting behaviour as well as specific votes on the minimum wage, civil rights, government spending, and abortion. In almost every instance, senators appear to be considerably more responsive to the opinions of affluent constituents than to the opinions of middle-class constituents, while the opinions of constituents in the bottom third of the income distribution have no apparent statistical effect on their senators' roll call votes. Disparities in representation are especially pronounced for Republican senators, who were more than twice as responsive as Democratic senators to the ideological views of affluent constituents. These income-based disparities in representation appear to be unrelated to disparities in turnout and political knowledge and only weakly related to the disparities in the extent of constituents' contact with senators and their staffs. Another study, by Martin Gilens (which I have not read) apparently found that "Policies favored by 20 percent of affluent Americans, for example, have about a one-in-five chance of being adopted, while policies favored by 80 percent of affluent Americans are adopted about half the time". You can find an article he wrote for the Boston Review which summarizes his academic work here. He writes: Under the Influence, Martin Gilens, Boston Review posted:These patterns play out across numerous policy issues. American trade policy, for example, has become far less protectionist since the 1970s, in line with the positions of the affluent but in opposition to those of the poor. Similarly, income taxes have become less progressive over the past decades and corporate regulations have been loosened in a wide range of industries. Jeffrey Winters published a 2011 book simply titled "Oligarchy" which provides a historical perspective on the influence of material wealth over political outcomes. His conclusion, which is roughly in line with the study posted by rudatron, is that money in the contemporary US directly translates into political power and that the contemporary United States qualifies as an oligarchy (much of his foundational work on oligarchy came from studying Indonesia so it'd be hard to dismiss this book as the grumblings of an academic leftist with an axe to grind). His book was also awarded the "Gregory M. Luebbert Award for the Best Book in Comparative Politics" by the American Political Science Association, which belies your claim that there's some kind of contemporary academic consensus that money doesn't buy political influence. I could go on if you like but I think a basic picture is already emerging. There's a substantial body of research that, on the specific terms you just outlined, demonstrates that policy reflects the preferences of people with money and largely ignores the preferences of people without money. How exactly the preferences of people with money actually gets translated into policy is, admittedly, a much more complicated question. However, the basic idea that having more money will give you greater political influence is really not in question. quote:I see you're talking from the perspective of what you think we'd need to be a more democratic society, but I was intending to ask "If society was perfectly democratic today, what differences do you think there would be". I think it's safe to say that in the U.S. anyway, a perfect implementation of public will today wouldn't result in a move towards the types of reforms you're describing. I find the idea of a 'public will' to be incredibly nebulous and tangled, to the point that it's not particularly useful. Is the public will just the aggregated desires of every person in the country? Does each separate state or county have its own public will? Do the rich and poor have separate public wills? Do blacks and whites, or men and women? Does such a thing as the public will exist on a contentious topic like abortion? Ultimately the question of how you actually define and then measure the public will is incredibly messy. Hence I think that the best way to measure how democratic a society is would not be whether policy matches 'the public will' but rather the amount of access people have to political power. quote:The conclusion you assume: that power is in the hands of the elite requires some evidence and I'm saying that evidence would show up as differences between what the public actually wants and what it gets. Well do you have a response other than "I haven't dived all the way into it"? As I've demonstrated this study is not some kind of outlier. Other respected academics have reached similar conclusions. quote:On the other hand academic consensus on the influence of money on elections and policy has generally been the opposite: very little. This is totally inaccurate. There is no academic consensus here. It's not even entirely clear how we should define 'influence' since different people measure influence in different ways. However, by the specific criteria that you outlined, the US completely unresposnive to 'the public will' of the bottom third of income earners. quote:A second response is that media controls what people want. Even assuming this is true (again, consensus is that it generally isn't), once we reject people's own assessments of their wants we're left with no other objective measures. There may always be better ways to judge what people "actually" want, but at the end of the day it rests on what they tell us. Undermining this puts you at risk of circular reasoning. The media doesn't precisely control what people want but it does a pretty good job of focusing people's attention on some things while ignoring others. The fact that the media spent significantly more time reporting on Tom Cruise' divorce than it did on the LIBOR scandal presumably does have an influence on people's views. The media cannot tell people what to think but it can play a role in determining what issues the public is paying the most attention to.
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# ¿ Aug 9, 2014 18:25 |
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The thing about lobbying and marketing more generally is that it's only the tip of the spear. They certainly play a role, sometimes a large role, in determining policy, but corporate influence goes deeper. The infamous Koch brothers are an instructive example here. Of course they engage in a lot of direct lobbying but they also make longer term investments, like de facto purchasing entire university departments: quote:A conservative billionaire who opposes government meddling in business has bought a rare commodity: the right to interfere in faculty hiring at a publicly funded university. Then, in addition to this, you have the support of a small number of people, such as the Kochs, for most of the major conservative think tanks: quote:One 1997 study by the National Committee for Responsive Philanthropy[25] identified twelve American foundations which have had a key influence on US public policy since the 1960s via their support for the Heritage Foundation, the American Enterprise Institute and the Cato Institute.[26] Three of these are Koch Family Foundations (the Charles G. Koch Charitable Foundation, the Claude R. Lambe Charitable Foundation, and the David H. Koch Charitable Foundation).[27] Others are the Lynde and Harry Bradley Foundation, John M. Olin Foundation, Carthage Foundation (controlled by Richard Mellon Scaife), Earhart Foundation, Philip M. McKenna Foundation, JM Foundation, Henry Salvatori Foundation, Sarah Scaife Foundation, and Smith Richardson Foundation.[27] Then you have the bankrolling of conservative books and TV shows. There's also Fox News, which essentially provides an entire network of conservative programming. The effect here is much greater than the sum of the individual parts. Each of these individual elements feeds off the others. Fox News can cite economists from these think tanks, the think tanks can cite economists from the bought and paid for economics programs, etc. etc. Individual advertisements are rarely intended to change people's minds. However a multi-decade campaign that integrates academics, media personalities, politicians, TV show personalities and even regular folks is going to be much more effective at changing people's opinions.
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# ¿ Aug 12, 2014 18:30 |
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Nintendo Kid posted:In what way were the "people at large" more powerful in say 1975? 1925? I wouldn't say the people at large were more powerful in 1925 (though they were probably more militant and class conscious). However in 1975 union density was higher, the government was more committed to economic security for average people and 'free trade' wasn't an automatic justification for cutting benefits and the middle and working class hadn't yet been placed in such direct competition with low wage workers in other regions of the world. While its a crude measure you can see the effects of these differences by looking at the wage and profit shares of GDP. Wages used to take up a larger share and profits took up a smaller one. Since the neoliberal era began we've seen the wage share decline and profits have risen. Since productivity has continued to increase that implies that the rich got better at squeezing money out of the poor, which in turn suggests a diminution of working class power. asdf32 posted:You present this as if it's a new development. It's not. I never said or implied that the ruling class manufacturing and using ideology to justify its rule was new. However the way this plays out in practice is different in every era and ought to be studied in its specific historical context, not dismissed as some kind of timeless and unchanging truth. quote:The rich and upper classes have been pulling the strings forever, it's better today than probably any other time in history. Why is it better today? You've presented zero evidence in that regard. asdf32 posted:And what does that mean in terms of political power and when do you think things were actually better? Its hard to definitively say that one historical period was "better" or "worse" than another because it's incredibly hard to come up with a good way to actually compare historical periods except in very broad and general terms. I also think its a bad question since it seems designed to distract us from the much more relevant question of "how could things be better right now?" That having been said, I think that mid century the government was much more committed to economic security for the majority, and middle and working class people tended to be better organized and more likely to have their views and concerns represented in the media. quote:On the other topic (Rudatron/Helsing's studies), if it turns out politicians just don't listen to poor people I can assure you it's not a new development (and much harder to solve too). Frankly this feels pretty disingenuous. You started out dismissing the idea that politicians were ignoring large parts of the population. Presented with contradictory evidence you say "IF I'm wrong then it's clearly a timeless truth of society", with the obvious implication that we can't fix it and should just resign ourselves to the status quo. You're trying to have your cake and eat it too, "heads I win, tails you lose". Your original statement was "Polls are the best we have for judging public will and broadly speaking I don't think polls differ from actual policy that much." Are you now retracting that argument? You now seem to be saying that the government has always ignored the desires of the poor. That is a huge and seemingly unacknowledged reversal of your position.
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# ¿ Aug 14, 2014 20:01 |
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computer parts posted:Though this is because we bombed the world to hell and back 30 years prior. This makes no sense. Trade regimes are political. The decision to enact "free" trade was clearly biased against working class people in a way that was not inevitably determined. For instance the protection of many professionals such as doctors and lawyers remains basically intact whereas factory workers must now compete with people in China. If you want a really blatant example of this just look at how free trade has tended to reinforce and extend expensive Intellectual Property "rights". Plenty of countries like India and China could be mass producing very cheap drugs, which would translate into big savings for society. But instead free trade always seems to make this harder and lets pharmaceutical companies extract high rents from their "intellectual property". If the increase in global trade had been regulated differently then there's no a priori reason to assume that we'd see the same effect on inequality or wages.
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# ¿ Aug 14, 2014 20:34 |
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computer parts posted:The US doesn't have free trade agreements with China. What I'm saying is that the only reason that other countries didn't previously take US manufacturing jobs is that competing infrastructure was demolished in previous conflicts and/or countries were left undeveloped in the first place. The US was also much more protectionist back then, a fact you're seemingly ignoring. International trade is not going to inevitably raise or lower wages because "international trade" is caught up in a series of political decisions. The effect of trade on wages cannot be separated from the political decisions that a country makes in how to regulate trade. And saying the US doesn't have a free trade deal with China is immaterial. Since the late 1980s the US has been actively exposing its working class population to international competition with other low wage workers. Germany is an instructive counter example here. They've been very successful at exporting their manufactured goods without seeing the same kind of massive reductions in wages and benefits that the USA has. There have certainly been changes in the German economy but nothing on the scale of what happened in the US. quote:And China routinely violates IP law all the time (just as the US did 150 years ago), they're not beholden to it in the slightest. You're missing my point. If increased global trade automatically lowers wages then why hasn't this happened to doctors, lawyers, big pharma, etc.? Because those groups are better organized and have more money and can therefore lobby for protection. At one point in the 1990s the American Medical Association complained that foreign doctors practicing in the USA were reducing their wages. The US government responded by making it harder for foreign doctors to practice in America. That's literally the opposite of what was happening to manufacturing workers at that time. I know its comforting to think you can explain away the reduction in working class wages with a single factor like increased global competition but its really nowhere near that simple.
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# ¿ Aug 14, 2014 21:18 |
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asdf32 posted:How is a foreign doctor supposed to compete with a local one? This doesn't make any sense. There are real differences between a factory worker and a doctor in terms of the ability of foreign workers to compete. See below. quote:And why would you expect IP laws to not be applied globally? Yes it's possible. But all the reasons that cause IP laws to exist domestically apply to foreign companies as well. Because IP laws are terrible, verging on evil in some cases, and because they are literally the opposite of 'free trade'. They're a very blatant example of how 'free trade' deals expose some segments of society to much harsher global competition while going ridiculous lengths to shield other groups, such as pharmaceutical companies. quote:The possibility that things could have been done differently doesn't mean that there arnt signifiant underlying reasons for why they ended up the way they did. Yeah, one of the primary reasons being that a section of the ruling class launched a multie-decade effort to break the labour movement. Kalman posted:Mostly those groups haven't (yet) experienced wage lowering because their work isn't as portable as traditional working class labor is. (With the exception of big pharma, where it absolutely has happened because that work is eminently portable in the same way as any other form of applied R&D and manufacturing.). My doctor can't be in China because he needs to be in the same room as me. If a Chinese doctor were to come here to do it, they face the same structural constraints (few of which are protectionist in the way you imply - there's not exactly a shortage of foreign-trained doctors) as a US-trained doctor and will expect the same wages as a result. For lawyers, the protectionism doesn't really matter because there's already an oversupply of licensed people - adding in foreign-trained lawyers won't affect the high end wages (clients won't pay for what they perceive as inferior quality) and the low end wages are already being forced towards minimum wage because of the existing oversupply. I strongly disagree. Doctors and lawyers both have elaborate certification systems that reduce their competition and therefore increase their wages. Like I said, we have the specific precedent of doctors successfully lobbying the government to slow the intake of foreign practicioners into the USA during the 1990s, the height of free trade mania. Dean Baker did a pretty good write up on this topic that I'll quote at length. I should note that I don't think the wholesale implementation of every one of Baker's proposals would be desirable from my own perspectives but the point here is that there's been very little effort to place most skilled professionals under more direct global competition, certainly nothing that compares to the efforts put into cutting working class wages: Dean Baker, The Conservative Nanny State, Center for Economic and Policy Research, 2006 posted:While there are many mechanisms through which the nanny state conservatives have increased the supply of less-skilled labor, probably the most visible is trade. Trade agreements that facilitate imports of cars, steel, clothes, and other manufactured goods disproportionately displace less-skilled workers from what had formerly been middle-class jobs with good wages and benefits. Nanny state conservatives usually treat this job loss as an unfortunate byproduct of trade agreements like NAFTA and CAFTA. In fact, the job loss and downward pressure on wages from these agreements are not unfortunate side effects of these trade deals — they are precisely the point of these trade deals. Regardless of whether these reforms would work as intended or be desirable, the upshot is that under the logic used to justify free trade they would increase economic efficiency. It's very striking that virtually no effort has been put into exposing these professions to international trade. It may be that as the ruling class feels more confident in its power it will allow more of the privileged upper 10% of income earners who constitute the professional classes to be proletarianized, but far these groups have been coddled compared to most workers. computer parts posted:International trade depends on more than just you and [the rest of the world]. If you're heavily protectionist but have a monopoly on a given product (say, corn) you can dictate policies that favor your country and the world can't do anything about it (ignoring military action and the like but that's not really a thing for the US). Hence why a smart trade strategy would be to focus on technologically sophisticated or well branded goods rather than imagining that a first world economy should primarily export grain. Besides which, the US has been a net imported for years and doesn't rely on foreign trade to remain prosperous. While its true that dumb corporate decision making and short sighted management damaged some key industries like steel and automobiles there was nothing inevitable about the way that the corporate sector responded to these setbacks (i.e. by attacking wages and benefits). Improvements in transportation and the opening up of the former communist countries certainly helped the ruling class here to smash the power of the labour movement but that doesn't mean that the reduction of US wages was somehow inevitable. There were a specific series of decisions made here in how to manage world trade, decisions that advantaged some groups and disadvantaged others. Obviously there would have been changes to the US economy, the economy changes every decade, but the idea that the world we live in is the only possible world seems rather silly. quote:That's why the global markets trend towards either free trade for all or some sort of economic block and domination**. The US does dominate an economic bloc, it just doesn't care very much about maximizing the wages of its average worker. For that matter the dichotomy you're setting up between "free trade" and "some sort of economic block" is totally false. In practice free trade and the creation of economic blocs go hand in hand. That's a big part of how the last free trade era, in the 19th century, eventually came to an end. quote:**(though another answer is "open your markets by force" but that hasn't really been relevant since nuclear weapons were invented) Uhhh, the last fifty years of US foreign policy disagree with you. quote:Germany's a pretty bad example because they're using the EU as their own protected market and they're manipulating policy to support their own market. Again, from my above example Germany formed an economic block with them at the center and they profit massively from it. The US has more than 300 people living in it and a vast endowment of natural resources. The US has a GDP of roughly 16.2 trillion as of 2012, the EU's GDP in 2012 was 16.5 in USD. The US could easily be its own internal market, in fact that Hamiltonian strategy was how the USA initially became the pre-eminent industrial power in the early 20th century. Honestly the idea that global trade deals that were largely initiated by the US and heavily lobbied for by many of its top corporations was somehow an inevitability that America was forced to submit to doesn't pass the laugh test. Trade regimes change, but the specific shape of a given trade regime is determined by political interest groups, and the particular interest groups with influence over the US government in the last few decades have chosen to push for a trade regime that depresses the wages of regular workers. quote:As noted, there's a difference between providing a service for money and providing a product. The one example of a product you could probably point to is automobiles, but those are expensive by design (ie, they're big and heavy so shipping costs a lot) and you can sell them for 5 figures of money so it makes sense to keep production local. You're portraying our current trade system as some kind of inescapable law of nature that all nations must either bend to or be destroyed by. Powerful countries like the USA play a greater role in shaping trade regimes than you seem to acknowledge. Here's a statement from one of the architects of the postwar trade regime: quote:I sympathize, therefore, with those who would minimize, rather than with those who would maximize, economic entanglement among nations. Ideas, knowledge, science, hospitality, travel--these are the things which should of their nature be international. But let goods be homespun whenever it is reasonably and conveniently possible, and, above all, let finance be primarily national. Yet, at the same time, those who seek to disembarrass a country of its entanglements should be very slow and wary. It should not be a matter of tearing up roots but of slowly training a plant to grow in a different direction. If people at the top still felt this way the trade deals of the last few decades would probably look pretty different. About the only argument I can see for the inevitability of globalization is that the ruling classes of the world very extremely spooked by the period between roughly 1968-1976, and genuinely afraid of a mixture of third world insurgencies and domestic strikes and protest movements. So smashing the old order was seen as a good way to escape both the economic malaise and the political danger of that period. Of course we could have escaped it by trying to create a more just world with a more even distribution of wealth, but I guess that's just unthinkable.
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# ¿ Aug 15, 2014 06:50 |
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computer parts posted:The point you're missing is that trade policy can be determined by factors outside of that specific nation's political policies. I'm well aware that trade policy is partially determined by technology and by historical events like the reversion of the communist world to capitalism. These are factors I specifically mentioned in my last post. quote:Yes, in theory everyone can be protectionist. That's not global trade, though, which is the situation we're discussing. Actually we were discussing whether the decline of the wage share of America's GDP was an inevitable by product of free trade. And "global trade" has existed for millenia under many different trade regimes. A thousand years ago the Vikings once had a trade network that stretched from Newfoundland to Baghdad. The Romans used to prize Chinese silk. There always has been and always will be global trade in some form. The question is what kind of political regime it takes place under. And there's very clearly plenty of potential ways to set it up, contrary to what you seem to be suggesting. Just in the last two hundred years we've had several examples of different trade regimes. You've given zero evidence that our current trade regime is somehow inevitable or unchangeable. computer parts posted:I'm saying that in an environment where (most of) the parties are capitalist, you're going to trend towards global (free) trade. The only exception is if you're A) Extremely dominant in the global market or if B) you have exclusive control of some resource that allows you to enact favorable trade policies. You're saying this while providing zero evidence. Your entire position here seems to be incredible simplistic and teleological. Actual history is much more complicated and contextual than you seem to be suggesting. The idea that there's some grand choice countries make between trade or protectionism is another false dichotomy on your part.
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# ¿ Aug 15, 2014 16:39 |
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computer parts posted:They weren't capitalist. The postwar era from the 40s to the 70s was certainly capitalist though. Capitalism is not a monolithic system. In the 18th century we had merchant capitalism, in the 19th century we've had industrial capitalism, in the 20th century we had all sorts of variations on capitalism from the welfare state to fascism. There's German capitalism and Japanese capitalism and American capitalism. The idea that national capitalism requires the sort of trade regime we currently have isn't supported by the evidence. History shows us that capitalism at the national level can co-exist with many different global trade regimes. quote:All of your posting has been a bunch of "nuh uh"s. At least I attempt to explain things. I've offered a number of explanations that you've seemingly ignored. You're the one who seems to be saying "based on my abstract idea of what capitalism is, option x or y must occur" and then failing to elaborate on why.
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# ¿ Aug 15, 2014 16:50 |
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computer parts posted:It's called a transition system. It's like wondering why gas costs so much now when 30 years ago it was peanuts. I don't understand why you think there's something teleological about the system that makes it inevitably end up at a specific place. Why was the postwar era a transition whereas the current free trade era is some kind of natural end state? Keep in mind that we had a previous era of free trade in the 19th century and it broke down quite dramatically. You seem to be saying that the one situation was natural and the other was somehow artifical. Perhaps you could explain why you think that. quote:Again, all of those require different states of the world. The world you wish to return to was defined by the rest of the world getting blown up. Repeating an assertion doesn't make it true. quote:I've elaborated quite a few times. I'm sorry but so far as I can tell you haven't. Maybe we're just talking past each other somehow so in the interest of having a good faith argument can you reiterate your argument (with evidence) or even just quote yourself? Also you still haven't explained why the USA couldn't act as its own internal market given that it has three fifth the population and a larger GDP than the European Union. It seems as though you've vastly exagerated the extent to which the US actually relies on foreign trade. asdf32 posted:And technology changed vastly over that time period. It's really hard for me to swallow the idea that politics is the primary driver of events that are so intertwined with rapidly changing technology. A copy right or patent is literally a government granted monopoly. The only justification for these things is that they are supposed to foster innovation. Current IP law has gone far beyond any reasonable standard and I think it's pretty easy to understand why: the people who benefit from IP are well organized and have very deep pockets. IP is a particularly blatant example of how, in the midsts of the 'free trade' era, the government has actually been creating and extending monopolies for some interest groups. The net result is a huge loss to society. Most of the cultural heritage of the 20th century remains in private hands long after it should be public domain. Billions of dollars spent on drugs that should be free by down (and which were often developed with extensive government assistance). It's an insane and cruel system that is perpetuated because it benefits the right people despite blatantly violating our supposed commitment to free trade. quote:Not to mention that it's really hard to accept that people had a clue what the long term consequences of globalization would be in 1968 (it was initially assumed that containerized ships would facilitate domestic trade). Were the planners deliberately trying to wipe out sections of the automotive, electronics and steel industries? Or empower China? Because those things were consequences too. I don't think that a cabal of rich men gathered together in a smoke filled room in 1968 and precisely planned out the next forty years of global history. I think events were much more reactive and improvisational than that. I do think there was a consciously planned effort to crush the labour movement domestically and free trade ended up being a very important part of that but this doesn't mean everything that has happened over the last four decades was a conscious plan. quote:If anything, at the time, increasing trade could easily have been seen as a way to boost demand for superior US manufactured goods, not wipe out manufacturing jobs, and this shows up in the shock and fear that accompanied the success of Japanese cars, steel and electronics in the 80's. US companies got a reprieve from the government in teh 1970s and 1980s. There was a great deal of government assistance given to those industries to provide them with breathing space so that they could get themselves on a more competitive footing, but for whatever reason these companies decided to focus on reducing labour costs. I can try to make a larger effort post with more specific examples of that at a later date (though ideally I'd like to know before making that kind of effort that I'm speaking with people who are open minded enough to consider changing their positions) but for now I'll just leave you with a hypothetical: why haven't free trade deals been predicated on better labour standards for third world countries? If the motivation behind free trade was to raise living standards rather than depressing domestic wages in the manufacturing sector then why was so little effort put into creating free trade deals that prioritized worker's rights rather than just investor rights? This is what I mean when I point to the highly political factors behind free trade. Obviously technological and social changes created new opportunities for trade but the specific content of trade deals can't just be explained away with appeals to technology. The container revolution didn't somehow make it inevitable that trade deals have tended to contain incredibly stringent protections for investors while ignoring worker rights.
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# ¿ Aug 16, 2014 00:02 |
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computer parts posted:Because the most developed nations in the 19th century were themselves still developing. Ok, so there's no substance to your ideas. Thank you for making that clear.
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# ¿ Aug 16, 2014 01:40 |
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asdf32 posted:Well if I had it my way we'd pick a number and not move it every time Micky Mouse was about to hit the public domain. First of all I'm far from the only person to raise a stink about the state of IP law. Many economists, not to mention many people in the IT sector, have made similar complaints. Second of all I think its extremely naive to believe that the state of IP law is based on any kind of "obvious logic". IP law reflects the power of special interests who have lobbied to protect their sources of profit, so arguing that it would be 'logical' to extend these regulations globally makes no sense unless you're simply saying that the logic of globalization is to extend and entrench the power of concentrated wealth. quote:"Ended up" hurting labor or was deliberately intended to hurt labor? The "ended up" part I'm agreeing with. Outsourcing is a way of reducing labour costs. That is, almost by definition, going to hurt the position of labour. quote:Again, the idea that Japan would be hurting U.S. steel, auto and electronic industries in the 1980's would have been nearly unbelievable to Americans in 1968. U.S. manufacturing dominance was taken for granted and the idea that factories could be outsourced wholesale didn't exist yet. Not to mention the fact that this hurt plenty of rich owners as well as workers. There was an extended and conscious effort by businesses to retake control of society in the 70s and 80s. You can see that playing out in several ways. For instance, businesses began to pool their funds into Chambers of Commerce and other collective organizations so that they could lobby together and therefore increase their influence. Movement conservatives took control of the Republican party and instituted a hard shift to the right under Reagan. Huge sums of money were made available to fund a constellation of right wing think tanks that began to push right wing policies into the media. Extensive public relations campaigns were conducted - men like Milton Friedman were given prominent public roles as columnists, TV hosts and book writers and then tasked with defending the Free Enterprise system. This is all well documented. Probably the most clear cut example of this offensive to retake control of society (not that they'd ever truly lost control, but the perception was that their influence was being diminished), however, was the extended union busting campaign: Here's an analysis of those efforts Dropping the Ax: Illegal Firings During Union Election Campaigns, 1951-2007 posted:Starting at the end of the 1970s, American employers began to engage in the systematic and widespread use of illegal firings and other aggressive legal and illegal tactics in an attempt to undermine the success of campaigns for union representation. At the peak in the early 1980s, almost three percent of pro-union workers involved in union election campaigns were illegally fired in connection with those campaigns. From that peak in the early 1980s, the rate of illegal firings fell smoothly through the end of the 1990s, though remained high by historical standards. From about 2000 on, however, the rate of illegal firings jumped sharply again. This observed increase in illegal firings holds even after we control for the rise in majority sign-up union organizing campaigns, which were often adopted in direct response to more aggressive anti-union tactics carried out by employers. There was an extensive, conscious and coordinated effort to break the back of the labour movement in this period. Globalization was a part of this. You can find a number of stories where a company would build a factory in another part of the world and then use this factory to extract concessions from their domestic workforce by threatening to move production overseas if the workers didn't accept wage and benefits cuts. quote:Because their competitors had cheaper labor is one reason they did that. Many U.S. brands went down the drain in the 80's, 90's and beyond as a direct result of foreign competition. "Free Trade" wasn't an automatic benefit to U.S. corporations or all rich people by any means. You can say this but the underlying data doesn't support your argument. The share of GDP going to wages has decreased and the share of GDP going to profits has increased. Economic inequality has also risen substantially. Yeah, there's always going to be some rich person or firm that losses in any major economic shift, but as a group it's very clear who benefited from these changes. quote:I don't need to speculate much on your hypothetical because I personally don't support the U.S. imposing working standards on other countries. The U.S. isn't in a position to determine when poor single mother in Indonesia should or shouldn't be working. Indonesians and their government can work that out. Western morality as it relates to poor third world workers typically amounts to little more than selfish guilt avoidance - in this case the west can keep its morality to itself. Uhh, the entire premise of globalization has been to entrench investor rights, enforce the mobility of capital, and to force other countries to enact specific policies on trade, government size and numerous other areas. It's rich that you'd simultaneously decry setting global standards for labour rights and yet say that it is "logical" to extend IP laws that make basic medicine unaffordable for millions. quote:My hypothetical for you: why does every nation have essentially free trade within its borders? The answer applies globally as well. They don't? Here in Canada there are huge barriers to inter provincial trade. You often can't sell specific items like wine across provincial barriers, quite a lot of our dairy and farming industry is controlled by a system called supply management, there are often different licensing requirements in different provinces, etc. etc. In the US there are also barriers to inter-state trade. Professionals often have their own accreditation systems, for instance. quote:What I've accepted is that trade undermined the relative power of manufacturing workers in the U.S. relative to other workers in the U.S. This isn't the same as accepting that it decreased their standards of living or that it's a net loss for humanity as a whole. Far from it. Ignoring the massive benefits to 3rd world workers for a moment (which isn't a small thing at all), trade probably hasn't decreased U.S. standards of living in absolute terms. Because even the poorer manufacturing workers benefit from cheap appliances and electronics. If the U.S. still had to manufacture essentially all our goods because of protections we'd collectively have much less stuff. Many people, including many you think have been harmed, wouldn't necessarily see this as a good trade-off. Free trade (plus union busting and a number of other factors that can't be taken in isolation) didn't just hurt the power of manufacturing workers, it hurt the power of workers vis-a-vis owners. That's why labour's share of GDP is decreasing. I don't even want to get into the other arguments you make here because we have enough ground to cover already. quote:This is problematic on multiple levels. First of all immigration as it de facto exists in the US obviously drives down wages in many places, especially illegal immigration. I think it should be common sense that when labour intensive activities like fruit picking or janitorial work or meat packing are being conducted by people with no legal rights that this will obviously put downward pressure on wages. Second of all immigration and trade are clearly related because both of them influence wages and profits. quote:Besides that, the reasons why doctors are highly regulated are also obvious - they're dealing with people's lives. U.S. doctors do succeed at using this to hold down their numbers to an extent, but one effect this has had is to boost the hiring of NP's and PA's which can do most of their job with fewer restrictions. Shockingly, they command pretty decent salaries themselves despite their comparative lack of protection, and doctor salaries have held up as this has happened. I don't think you've actually addressed the underlying argument here. If we're better off opening up international competition in the manufacturing sector then why are we simultaneously making it harder to globalize professional services like medicine? Keep in mind that American doctors make substantially more than doctors in other first world countries (i.e. Europe or Canada). Doctor's wages tend to be high but they aren't automatically as high as they are in the USA. The same logic that shows gains from greater trade in manufacturing also shows gains from reducing barriers to the immigration of highly skilled professionals.
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# ¿ Aug 21, 2014 16:50 |
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Kalman posted:Of course, you're applying the complaints from the IT sector to pharmaceuticals, where many economists have said "yes, IP law makes sense and appears to drive innovation." There are plenty of reasons to complain about drug patents. Some economists like the current system, some economists don't. quote:It's almost like you don't understand IP law, how it works, and how different sectors employ it in different ways and have different rewards as a result. Enlighten me and free the thread from my ignorance then.
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# ¿ Aug 21, 2014 20:13 |
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Kalman posted:Very briefly: drug patents fit the canonical case for IP (high cost of development, relatively low cost of replication once created, limited follow-on innovation). Software patents are the opposite. Using arguments from IT/economists focusing on software patents is like arguing that London police should be able to speak Russian because the population of Moscow does - you're using evidence from a completely unrelated thing. Ok, thanks for responding. I have a couple of responses. First of all the economist I've been citing in regards to intellectual property, Dean Baker, has written extensively on drug patents. Whether or not you agree with my arguments I am not conflating an argument developed against software IP with an argument developed against drug patents. Second of all, the problem with the way we currently treat intellectual property in regard to medicine is that there are huge inefficiencies in the system that you're brushing over. A lot of money ends up getting spent trying to copy drugs that are already on the market. If we didn't enforce drug patents then companies wouldn't waste so many resources trying to create copycat versions of drugs that already exist. Also, quite often these drugs are developed using basic research that was publicly funded, or in partnership with publicly funded universities. Here's an article by Baker making basically the same case. As he notes, there's good reason to believe that dispensing with the current system and replacing it with publicly funded research would lead to huge savings for society. Perhaps more importantly it would save a lot of lives and increase the quality of life for millions. The current system prices far too many people out of the market for life saving care. I think any justification for the current regime is more than outweighed by the huge costs it imposes. quote:Expensive Drugs and Medicaid: Who’s Afraid of Trade? The Center for Economic and Policy Research ahs also published a couple of papers trying to calculate the potential savings of a publicly financed drug system, and Baker also discusses these arguments at greater length in his book 'The Conservative Nanny State'. Whether or not you find this article particularly convincing I hope we can continue this debate in a more civil manner. My last big post in this thread was already quite long and I didn't particularly want to make it even longer by talking at length about intellectual property rights when that wasn't the focus of my argument. However, I always try to address any objections that people raise to my arguments. So in the future if you think I'm missing something or if you see a hole in my argument then please call me out on it, but rather than just saying you think I'm an idiot actually spell out your objection (for the benefit of anyone else reading the thread as well as my own) and I'll do my best to provide you with a reply.
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# ¿ Aug 22, 2014 22:25 |
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# ¿ Apr 23, 2024 22:48 |
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Apologies for the long delays here but I've been busy. I've only partially answered your post in the interests of brevity, if I left something out you really wanted addressed then let me know. I do feel as though we've started to move away from any specific argument and are starting to just bicker in general, so maybe we can think of a way to refocus the discussion. I'm going to try and spend a bit of time thinking about what our fundamental disagreements here really are, you might want to do the same so that we can maybe distil this debate down to some fundamental points. Also, I feel as though there are some parts of your argument I'm not really clear on. You promised a longer response to my post on how American 'democracy' is totally unresponsive to the bottom third of income earners (and only selectively responsible to the middle third). It's also not really clear to me what your response to the union busting of the 1970s is. It seems as though you've basically just ignored these parts of the argument, but they're pretty significant in my mind. I mean, sure, you quoted the part of my post that discusses union busting. But you didn't actually have much to say or any new evidence to provide. All you did was repeat your unsupported assertion that the real cause of labour's decline is globalization rather than an aggressive campaign of illegal firings (combined, of course, with outsourcing and the introduction of labour saving technology). asdf32 posted:I'm not going to go to bat for drug IP here. That's not my thing. "We" enforce it because it benefits the same class of people who are the primary beneficiaries of globalization. That's my point: the policies our government has been enacting both domestically and internationally are prejudiced in favour of certain interest groups, at the expense of the rest of us. quote:Yes and no. You missed the point in my following paragraphs. But under capitalism that is the motivation behind most technological innovation. That is precisely the flaw with capitalism: innovations that would otherwise be beneficial to society as a whole, such as technological advancement or foreign trade, are only allowed to proceed under conditions where they benefit capitalists. Motivation doesn't really matter here. Whether or not the guy who came up with the database system was intentionally trying to hurt the position of labour that is generally the effect of labour saving technology unless there are countervailing powers like unions or an activist government. quote:Bold: No kidding. And the thing that's new in this entire section isn't business's desire to cut costs, or get control, it's the ability to build that factory overseas. That's the difference and that's the root cause of much of the course of the next couple decades in terms of labor power. Well business did become more motivated to cut costs in the 1970s because the profit rate dropped and that made the generous concessions won by labour in the last few decades harder to tolerate. So while it's true that businesses will generally always be happy to cut costs that doesn't mean that their appetite for cost cutting is the same in all time periods. But more importantly the point here is that the ability to move factories overseas like that wasn't just dependent on technology, it was dependent on a change in political sensibilities and regulations. It's very hard to imagine in 1950 that this kind of behaviour would have been tolerated in the same way. That's what you seem to be missing - the political change that had to accompany the economic and technological changes to make globalization in its present form a possibility. quote:
First of all, please source this image. Second of all I'd suggest that if we want to look at changes in global poverty then we need to use more specific breakdowns at the level of regions or countries rather than the entire globe. Aggregating statistics at such a high level can be very misleading. Third, and building on point two, if you look at large swathes of Africa, Eastern Europe or Latin America then the era of Free Trade has been disastrous. A lot - not all, but a lot - of the growth in income on that chart is coming from Asia (or else it's coming from Latin America in the commodity boom period, which doesn't necessarily prove what you want it to prove). In particular, it is coming from countries that consciously ignored free trade doctrine and only used it selectively to develop themselves. China is hardly a conventional free trade success story and citing it as such is highly problematic. China, for instance, has not opened itself up very much to global capital flows and has largely financed its growth through the savings of its own population and through technology that wasn't necessarily acquired legally. Indeed you're ignoring the extent to which many of these regions of the world were growing rapidly in the 50s and 60s, only to have this progress halted by during the 1970s and 1980s, and then resumed (though more weakly than before) in the 1990s. Just pointing at some single stat, frozen in time, and pretending it tells the whole story is misleading. Finally, correlation is not causation. Much of the development that you're referring to has nothing to do with trade per se and everything to do with the diffusion of technology and best practices in business. Even neoclassical economists admit that they mostly don't understand how economic development works. It often has soemthing to do with trade but mostly it comes from that nebulous residual category called "total factory productivity". In conclusion, your claim that globalization has been good for the global poor needs to be heavily qualified because 1) it's not clear how much it has helped them and 2) it's not clear to what extent this is because of trade vs. general technological diffusion and catch up. If you take the example of the Soviet Union you'll see that you don't need a capitalist economy to have rapid growth. If you're starting from a low baseline then it is possible to grow rapidly regardless of your economic system. quote:Also, again it needs to be pointed out that the rich benefiting from something doesn't mean the rich got together and planned it. And it's less likely when you can see that a decent chunk of them didn't benefit. You'll have to define 'decent chunk'. Also keep in mind that I'm not crafting some kind of conspiracy theory here. It's a matter of record that trade deals like NAFTA were crafted based on consultation with businesses and advocated for by think tanks supported by corporate money. So yes, without question globalization was "planned" by the rich. It was literally developed by politicians and businessmen and diplomats and all those groups clearly qualify as "rich". quote:Just as an aside you probably don't appreciate how different my tone would be regarding globalization/capitalism if it weren't for the large broad hill in that graph above. We need to be aware that we exist in that valley. Everyone except us and our first world middle class friends are benefiting economically at rates that have rarely been seen in history, and never for as many people. Personally I doubt that increased GDP or increased technology are going to make the next generation of the first world much better off than us today, and there is a chance that it will make them worse. But such isn't the case for the poor. So I'm somewhat indifferent to the need for capitalism in the first world (though I do think others still want the growth it's supposed to provide, and most alternatives suck), but not for developing countries. This is simply wrong. quote:If you're not willing to apply your definition of "free trade" to U.S. interstate trade then your definition doesn't come close to existing on the global stage. As you know, interstate trade is more open than any actual international trade, where despite the notion of "free trade" we have byzantine protections anyways. That's because Free Trade is mostly just a buzzword used to mystify the actual way that globalization functions. That's my point. We'll never see Free Trade consistently applied because the main purpose of the theory is to justify the self interested actions of the people who own and run our society. Hence why I'm pointing out the inconsistencies of how we apply Free Trade. quote:I'd like you to expand on what you'd actually like to see. I find it utterly implausible to imagine how the first world throwing up protections is expected to benefit poor people. Because it's inevitably the first world whose going to get the better end of these types of negotiations. Developing countries actually depend far more on imports from the first world (irreplaceable medical/industrial/computing equipment) than the other way around. Economic growth rates were actually higher prior to the 'Free Trade' era of the 1980s and 90s. Here's Latin America's GDP per capita: The bad old days of import substitution and high trade barriers saw faster growth than the era of globalization. Obviously these stats call for a deeper analysis, something I'd be happy to get into in more detail. But the point is that the sitaution here is much more complicated than you seem to think. Free Trade hasn't lead to some kind of unprecedented whirlwind of growth. In fact it's coincided with a general slowdown in growth rates for much of the world (and many of the places that are still growing rapidly are either enjoying the one time transfer of rural populations into cities or they are experiencing commodity booms that are unsustainable in the longer term, which, again, further muddies the waters and makes it unclear how real or sustainable some of this growth actually is). quote:The weather is linked to wages and profits too, but has no businesses in this discussion. I'm not denying that immigration is linked, but I'm pointing out that it's an utterly distinct issue, with a political landscape entirely its own. Therefore it's not instructive of anything that we push "free trade" without simultaneously pushing to import truckloads of foreign doctors. This isn't a thing that's inconsistent, especially given where immigration currently stands. Weather isn't controlled by political and legal regimes, immigration is, so your analogy makes no sense. If you don't think business stakeholders have influenced immigration laws or enforcement then I don't really know what to tell you. And if you don't see the irony of the fact that in the 1990s the US was simultaneously making it easier to import foreign manufactured goods and harder to obtain the services of a foreign doctor then again, I don't really know what else to tell you. That, to me, is a pretty stark illustration of how some groups can lobby the government for protection more successfully than others.
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# ¿ Sep 8, 2014 18:28 |