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Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

VitalSigns posted:

OK now find the craziest Muslim you can and use his words to prove all Muslims are death worshipping terrorists.


Who says we should ignore it? We should use the example of slaveowners ignoring the teachings of Christ and picking out a few passages in some dude's letters to justify owning people to hammer the current gently caress-the-poor prosperity Gospel Christianity that's in vogue nowadays in America.

Christ never forbade or even spoke against the owning of slaves nor implied anywhere that he was against it probably because he had no problem with it, being a Bronze Age Jewish scholar and all.

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Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

VitalSigns posted:

Plenty of Christ's moral teachings amounted to that though. It's really hard to reconcile slavery with the Sermon on the Mount, for example, where Christ says that everything we do to each other we're actually doing to God.

I'm sure Jesus supported treating slaves kindly and not being needlessly cruel but he absolutely had no problem with Jews owning slaves in general and if he did he seems to have forgotten to ever mention it. In retrospect we recognize that even the "kindest" form of slavery is grossly immoral and inhumane and so can apply Jesus' words to the practice, but that doesn't retroactively change the past.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

VitalSigns posted:

It doesn't really make sense to claim that you know Jesus' true opinion on slavery just because he didn't mention it. Sure maybe he didn't care or he forgot to mention it, or maybe he consciously avoided saying anything that could be interpreted as treason against Rome (as the Pharisees were constantly trying to trick him into doing so he could be arrested) and instead said subversive things about how you should treat every human being the same way you would treat Him if He came to your house.

I don't really have any interest in trying to retroactively change the past, since that's impossible. But in the here and now we absolutely can use scripture to convince Christians to be consistent with the teachings of Jesus, rather than agreeing with Fred Phelps and telling Christians that if they want to follow Christ they should start being bigots.

I wouldn't say I know Jesus' true opinion, but it's a fact that slavery was a normal practice in his time. And despite the indisputable fact that his teachings were used by the abolitionist movement and Christians were the driving force behind ending slavery in America, to say that it clearly condemns slavery isn't the least bit accurate. Jesus' teachings were also undeniably used to make pro-slavery arguments as well, and even though I don't agree with them they wouldn't have been able to do that if he had ever outright said, "don't own people for any reason". And since getting caught and crucified was supposedly part of the plan there's no excuse for Jesus not to start explicitly saying so when he decided the time was right. The fact that he never does probably means that he likely didn't have much of a problem with it, just like the vast majority of his peers didn't, and that's not an outrageous claim to make. It also doesn't change how we can apply his teachings today.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

VitalSigns posted:

Maybe he thought that "what you do to the least among you, you're doing to god" was explicit enough since obviously no one is going to say it'd be cool to whip god in the gold mines.

Your argument seems to assume that Jesus actually was supernatural and that he knew the future and how Southern gentlemen would twist his words 1800 years later and therefore should have known to be more explicit, which is a weird thing to do. You're adding in all kinds of assumptions to avoid taking his words at face value.

There's really no way to reconcile slavery with Jesus' teachings of charity and humanity and turning the other cheek and treating everyone like your family or like God. Obviously people are going to try because slavery is profitable, but those people are demonstrably wrong.

Sure there is, by not considering slaves to be real people to whom those teachings don't apply or by not seeing slavery as inherently wrong or immoral. Which is exactly what many Christians thought for a very long time, and while you and I understand this makes those people immoral assholes who have a warped interpretation of scripture, it doesn't make them not Christian. And I'm not saying Jesus should have seen American slavery coming and spoken out against it, I'm saying he more than likely had views more in line with the culture he grew up in, that slavery wasn't inherently wrong, and not our modern ones which is why he didn't explicitly speak out against slavery but did speak out against needless cruelty. We have progressed since his time and so we can apply his ideals in better ways than even he probably imagined and this included abolishing slavery.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Crowsbeak posted:

I worry mostly about people who deny history.

Such as?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Crowsbeak posted:

Gay Marriage. I believe man and women, but then its a minor issue compared to having children going without food, and medical care and a society turn away from helping the helpless.

Drug use, I think you shouldn't do drugs, but then I can see that people use drugs despite the insane war.

You believe man and women what? Are you saying you're a polygamist so long as it's one husband and multiple wives? Is this you trying to hint that you're a Mormon?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Crowsbeak posted:

I'll admit that you really made me laugh, with that one, it does sound like I am endorsing polygamy. Look I believe one man one women marriage.
Why?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Tao Jones posted:

Maybe Jesus was concerned with some kind of other world and wasn't attempting to solve political problems? That could be one reason why his words seem irrelevant to solving modern political problems.

No, I'm pretty sure he was very concerned about the political problems of Judea circa 0 BCE. Turns out a lot of those issues have changed over the last 2000 years. Imagine that.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Mornacale posted:

"People are cool things" contains a value judgement, and therefore comes from a place other than strict materialism.

There's a difference between methodological materialism and philosophical materialism. Most materialists are the former.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Crowsbeak posted:

Jesus being God kind of makes the whole idea of murdering your enemies a bad thing now. Now I know that didn't stop the Catholic church in the 1000s using that to justify the crusades.

You know what God never does? Say owning people as property is wrong. loving interesting, that.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Crowsbeak posted:

Yep thats why slave traders are personally called out.

In the bible? Because if so this never actually happens.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

VitalSigns posted:

It's not about getting credit, it's about recognizing influences on abolitionist thought.

No, getting credit was the sole reason Milktank brought it up in the first place, so that Christianity would have more points in the "did good" column than the "did bad".

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Mornacale posted:

Well, that depends. Certainly the kind of postmodern "there is no objective meaning" approach is a recent development, but only slightly more recent than the idea of literalism. I think there's a sort of popular bigotry that assumes that ancient people weren't as smart as us, and part of that is the idea that we can understand their literature on a "deeper" level than they could (see also: Ancient Aliens). I think this idea doesn't stand up to history; more than a few parts of the Bible are explicitly metaphorical, after all, and it would be a disservice to the writers/audience to suggest that they didn't recognize implicit symbolism also.

In fact, I would go so far as to say that the idea that "face value" and "literal" are equivalent is itself a modern invention.

Now, that's not to say that humans haven't anthropomorphized gods for our whole history. Certainly, if you asked a believer to think about god, I have no doubt they conceptualized them as vaguely human, just like we tend to think of them as an old white man today. But it's important not to confuse a popular conceptual model with the theoretical object: if I imagine a Hydrogen atom I think of a little ball with an electron orbiting it like a moon, and I might even use this model when writing about chemistry, but if you tell me that means I believe atoms are planets then of course you're missing the point.

Similarly, using the model of God-as-human is useful when discussing a personal conversation/revelation, but elsewhere in the same story it presents God as a bush and a tower of smoke/fire. Then also as an unseen force that can do all kinds of miracles without any apparent physical presence. I think the text is pretty clear that the God-as-human model is not accurate, or at least vastly incomplete.

e: The reason why this is important is that it helps us to criticize when and how these conceptual models go awry. Consider my chemistry example: if I lean too heavily on that model of the atom, I may end up with errors or limits in my thinking. But you can't address this by saying "um, atoms aren't moons, duh". Rather, you recognize what I am saying I actually believe, point out some issues that actually exist, and then propose a better model.

You're right to say that it's false to assume that ancient people weren't as smart as us and thus were all literalists, but it's also wrong to try and pretend that literalism just sprang out of thin air sometime around America's founding. While it's true that biblical literalism is probably at the height of it's popularity and before Evangelicals it wasn't quite so concentrated the belief did exist before those movements. Do you think that there weren't stupid people in the past along with very smart people? You'd have to have quite a romanticized view of 200 CE people to think that each and every person alive was some sort of enlightened thinker with greatly nuanced, modern even, views of biblical interpretation.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Indeed, and they've shown that prayer is medically beneficial.

Actually the 2006 study called "Study of the Therapeutic Effects of Intercessory Prayer (STEP)" showed that prayer is medically detrimental.

Who What Now fucked around with this message at 23:32 on Feb 15, 2015

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Well you cut off the part where I said it wouldn't matter either way, and in fact the results of studies have been mixed, AND people of the opposing "faction" undermine the credibility of the studies that don't conform to their presuppositions.

The study was funded by Templeton Foundation, so if anything they would have tampered with it to show that prayer was effective. And you made a factual claim that studies showed that prayer was slightly beneficial, which is untrue even though your other points are still valid. I agree with your other points and was only correcting that one.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

More alarming to New Atheists, and really my original point, is that all of this happens without any input from them, and that it is not about them at all.

What the gently caress are you talking about?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

The irrelevance of atheists to theology, or the lives of religious people in general. And vice-versa.

No, you said that "New Atheists" are upset that they weren't directly involved with theology changing its interpretations. Where do you see that? Show me this.

Agag posted:

Also, the most repressive regimes in the history of mankind have all been officially atheist. But of course terrible government abound, if not predominate.

Yes, the regimes supported by cult of personalities headed by near or literal deified leaders sure were atheistic. :jerkbag:

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

I'm not familiar with any regime more repressive that Stalinist Russia, Maoist China, or the DPRK.

In the latter two the leaders were worshipped as actual god-like figures. How the gently caress can you say they're atheistic? And you never answered my question:

Who What Now posted:

No, you said that "New Atheists" are upset that they weren't directly involved with theology changing its interpretations. Where do you see that? Show me this.

You made a claim, now back it up.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Because they were officially atheists, and killed people for (among other things) being religious.

Do you even know what atheism means? I'll give you a hint: you can't have God-like figures and be atheist.

quote:

It was in this thread, pages ago. Jastiger and someone else agreeing that theologians "move goalposts" to assimilate religious beliefs to modernity.

You really think that churches have moved forward on acceptance of homosexuals and especially same-sex marriage without any influence from secular views? Because if so I have a bridge to sell you.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Its very funny to me that some people can't let this go. Atheist regimes murder tens of millions, and in order to protect the conceit that atheism is on some different moral plane from the rest of human belief you need to revise history with this No True Atheist claim. "See Mao was like a god, so really all those people were killed by religion. The smashing of temples by Red Guards was incidental."c

Well the issue, that you don't seem to grasp, is that even if they are atheist regimes, atheism is not a positive-claim belief. Atheism doesn't inform moral decisions, it can't. The only thing it informs is whether or not you believe in a god. It cannot cause those regimes, the cause comes from another belief, like communism or dictatorship. You can't compare "atheist" and "theist" regimes

quote:

Some churches have moved forward on homosexuality, but not enough. Its a valid criticism of organized religion.

Yes, and they did so because of secular influence and pressure.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

My point from the Chapel HIll thread exactly. Atheism is a paring-away, not an adding-to. If you strip away any possibility of objective morality, why not murder tens of millions? Which is exactly what atheist regimes have done. While it doesn't mean than any atheist regime MUST do this, it does show that it is at least possible.

You're acting as if only theism can instill morals and teach an ethical system, but you're wrong. There's also secular humanism, non-theistic Buddhism, and all sorts of other things. Atheism doesn't take away anything, because the vacuum it leaves will instantly be filled by another philosophy. I really think you need to stop, leave the thread for a bit, and actual go and read about what atheism actually is, because you really have no idea.


quote:

I've been to a few gay-friendly churches and it seems to be the driving force was actually gay Christians.

Oh, well obviously you going to two whole gay-friendly churches you obviously understand all churches and their reasons for becoming more progressive. Don't worry guys, agag has this poo poo on lockdown.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Only theism can provide an objective moral standard because it posits some kind of external origin for morality. Atheism is purely materialistic, and thus all morality is subjective and conditional.

No it isn't. I can posit an objective moral standard that just is, independent of a god. You can posit anything, so simply saying that there is an objective moral standard doesn't mean that there is, and it certainly doesn't come from something as subjective as theism. That's just asinine. So not only are you wrong that only theism can provide an objective moral system, theism can't even give you one at all.

quote:

I said it was anecdotal. That's still more evidence than you provided for your claim. :shrug:

You only have to look at falling attendance rates to realize that churches are desperate to get young, progressive people back in the pews and tithing.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Miltank posted:

Pick one or the other, either way works for me.

Atheists don't believe with a god. If you believe in a god, even if that God is Kim Jong Il, you aren't an atheist. Pretty simple, I don't know why that's hard for you.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

I'm of the abolitionist view myself. Ultimately the abolitionist side prevailed, though theologically speaking you raise an important elementary principle. The morality is absolute, though our interpretation of it can be flawed. This compares nicely to atheism, where there is no moral absolute, just our subjective interpretations. In either case you mostly end up with lovely government.

No, it isn't. If it were it would be unchanging and you'd follow all the laws of the Old Testament.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

As opposed to the Gospels?

Yes. What part of "unchanging" was too complicated for you? Here, it means "doesn't change".

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

You're unable to think beyond your own presuppositions.

Theists have presuppositions too:ssh:

quote:

You can posit a moral absolute, and it remains a theoretical construct, with all the force of one. A theist believes their moral absolutes originate with an eternal God, or Dharma, or otherwise immutable and timeless standard.

My objective morals also originate from an eternal source, it just isn't god.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Aside from being rude, I can't tell what you are asking.

I'm asking why your "objective" morals change subjectively. Since this seems to be really hear for you I'll give you the answer and save you the hemming and hawing; your morals are just as subjective as everyone else's.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Human morals are always subjective. The point is that theistic subjectivity strives towards an objective ideal. Atheism has no such ideal, its just whatever you borrow or make up.

Show me this objective ideal. Prove that it exists.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

As I said previously, this is tied in to theism or atheism. If God exists then He presents and objective morality. You deny the existence of any objective morality when you deny the existence of God. Neither position is "provable."

So you don't have an objective morality, you believe that there is one and you have a subjective one. So why did you outright lie and claim that you have a set of objective morals?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

You said your morality was socially derived. Our society is largely based on Christian morality, so your morality is a second-hand Christian morality. :shrug:

Perhaps I misunderstood your claim for the basis of your morality. If so, please re-state it.

Wait, do you think we were founded as a Christian nation?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Maybe. Or maybe all of those moral systems were based on a divinely mandated objective morality. Neither is "provable."


I've seen more compassion from theists than atheists, but I agree that this is difficult to quantify.

Mandated where? How can you prove it was from a divine source? You keep claiming to have an objective morality, but you sure don't know poo poo about it.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Theism "has" one as part of its metaphysics. Individuals don't "have" it except as an ideal.

I though this was clear, but I apologize if I wasn't specific enough. No need to be rude.

Metaphysics are nothing but made up bullshit given a fancy name to try and cover up that they're made up horseshit.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth
^^^^^
No, I know why.

Miltank posted:

Freakin awesome.

Truth hurts, I suppose.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Depends on the religion, but for specific to e.g. Christianity its mandated by God and is eternal, and we are aware of God and this morality through revelation.

Revelation to who? How did you prove that it was actually revealed to them, and that the source was your specific God?

quote:

To which you might say "that's a bunch of made up bullshit!" Which certainly makes for an enlightening conversation.

Sure, it might not be enlightening, but it's also not wrong.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

That is the theological argument, yes. It gets very complicated, but suffice to say that God is morality are eternal, and different human cultures reflect that morality to various degrees.

Hold on though, your theology believes that God literally handed his divine set of rules to the Jews. Are you saying God deliberately handed down less than perfect morals the first time around?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Revelation to mankind. The typically listed sources of revelation are of course prophets (e.g. Moses), scripture, the Messiah/Christ, and what Aquinas called "general revelation," or in the world itself as we observe it. So depending on how many of these you get, you will be closer to the still-unreachable objective morality.

Accepting or rejecting revelation or imputing its source is, of course, a matter of faith.

So, again, you don't have anything objective at all and it's all subjective. And yet you still maintain that you have access to objective morals despite not having any real means of even knowing what they are.

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Miltank posted:

What you are asking about is metaphysics.

And metaphysics, at least theistic "metaphysics", aren't worth poo poo.

Agag posted:

To everybody, but one set to the Jews specifically. But that is specific to Christian theology. In e.g karmic religious the objective morality is just there and you need to open your mind to it, etc.

So, again, rather than giving down the true objective morals he has, he deliberately gave the Jews flawed ones, yes or no?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Agag posted:

Theist have an objective ideal. They cannot be, in themselves, objective.

And I have an objective ideal as well, and it doesn't come from god. So why did you say I didn't?

Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Mornacale posted:

I don't find this objection to be particularly persuasive. Given that YHWH is a transcendant, omniscient being, I find it difficult to conceive that whatever objective morals they have would be transmissable to any finite being, let alone a bunch of Bronze Age assholes lost in a desert. For instance, imagine God is a consequentialist: since they have perfect knowledge, they would objectively know the "correct" thing for every person to do at any time to get the best outcomes, but there's no way to transmit this knowledge without essentially engaging in mind control. Even a deontologist God presumably has to (if they don't want to breach free will) be realistic about what commandments will be actually recorded, followed, and passed down.

Plus, of course, there's a pretty easy cop-out if you don't believe Biblical authorship was infallible (which you shouldn't, because God directly dictating the Bible would violate free will).

e: (Free will doesn't exist, of course, but it's a necessary premise of almost all Christian theology afaik so contravening it opens it just as many problems as it might solve.)

So you're saying a supposedly omnipotent and omniscient being is incapable of finding a way to transmit knowledge of objective morals without resorting to mind control? That seems like an arbitrary limitation because just because we can't think of one doesn't mean God can't.

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Who What Now
Sep 10, 2006

by Azathoth

Disinterested posted:

I'm under no obligation to engage with someone as risible as you,

No one has an obligation to engage with anyone on this board, so don't act like you're being uniquely magnanimous.

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