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Hate Speech: legal or not?
I'm from America and it should be legal.
From America, illegal.
Other first world country, it should be legal.
Other first world country, illegal.
Developing country, keep it legal.
Developing country, illegal.
View Results
 
  • Locked thread
on the left
Nov 2, 2013
I Am A Gigantic Piece Of Shit

Literally poo from a diseased human butt

archangelwar posted:

Narrower (legal) Definition
In law, hate speech is any speech, gesture or conduct, writing, or display which is forbidden because it may incite violence or prejudicial action against or by a protected individual or group, or because it disparages or intimidates a protected individual or group. The law may identify a protected group by certain characteristics. (I suppose you could construe that disparagement could occur absent intent, but the deliberate act of promulgating the hate speech is intent)

Edit:
Not all hate speech is specifically "intent to intimidate"
It is expression of desire for: intimidation, violence, oppression, undermining humanity, etc.

Is truth an absolute defense to this law? Specifically the part about disparagement of a protected individual or group. Canada's law is great because factual statements are disqualified from being considered hate speech. Example: "Orange people are stupid" is hate speech, "Orange people have an average IQ of 84" is not

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OneEightHundred
Feb 28, 2008

Soon, we will be unstoppable!

archangelwar posted:

they have discussed clearly targetted and limited scope instances such as cross burning, Germany's ban on holocaust denial through incitement to hatred, etc.
The scope of those is vastly different though, so I have no idea what kind of policy bringing them both up together is supposed to support.

The cross-burning ban in the US is an example of the extremely narrow scope that German policies have no trouble exceeding - Germany can ban specific symbols as being incitement, can ban them even when they're not being directed at a protected group (i.e. burning one at a KKK rally), and can just ban the KKK outright. In fact I'm pretty sure that the KKK is already banned there as a neo-Nazi organization. The German ban on holocaust denial is, conversely, something that would have almost no chance of surviving court scrutiny in the US, between the difficulty in arguing that holocaust denial is incitement, the difficulty in arguing that "incitement to hatred" is content-neutral, and the difficulty of arguing that it's incitement to any other kind of illegal activity under even the most permissive historical standards.

quote:

What would be helpful is if people responded directly to these arguments rather than bringing up Russian laws against "hooliganism" and Islamic bans on depictions of Mohammad.
You still missed the point of the first case: They weren't charged or convicted of just "hooliganism," they were charged and convicted of incitement, specifically incitement against ROC "believers." There's some obvious sleight of hand in conflating the organization with its adherents rather than its leadership, but it's one of the main ways that defamation laws get abused.

quote:

I think this might be awkwardly worded as a question because as I said before, I don't believe that the First Amendment prevents bans on certain (and the most pernicious) forms of hate speech, especially as the jurisprudence has evolved.
Maybe that wasn't a good question then, the better question would be how you (or anyone here) think that the law or the interpretation of it should change, or who should be charged with things that they aren't being charged for currently, or anything like that.

What it sounds like to me when people cite European laws is that they want something like the expression of negative opinions about some groups or other to be illegal on the grounds that it's either inherently or in the same category as some combination of defamation, intimidation, harassment, or incitement to violence. If that's not accurate, it'd be nice to clear that up.

quote:

Where I take issue is the absolutist nature with which people declare current (as in existing European) or future (under discussion) hate speech proposals as prima facie violations of a) the 1st Amendment, and b) the socio-political theory of freedom of expression. I say this especially in light of further evolution of human rights expression such as the right to dignity which has been strengthened by the Obergefell v. Hodges decision. Especially as it pertains to LGBT rights, I think you will see further clarification of the friction points between free expression and protections under the right of dignity.
Well, what the theory behind the First Amendment is, what the current standards are for applying the First Amendment, what the Supreme Court could change those standards to in the future, and what ideal hate speech laws would be if it was just assumed that they were constitutional (like, say, if we passed an amendment explicitly authorizing them) are four very different questions. I don't think discussing the theory is very productive, and discussing future overturns is way too speculative.

However, I doubt that many European hate speech laws would survive constitutional challenges in the US with the current bench, and I especially wouldn't hold my breath for it happening under the current bench just because they handed down Obergefell v. Hodges when they handed down Snyder v. Phelps with a stronger majority.

quote:

To add, I disagree with the assertion of the Constitution and Bill of Rights as the definitive assertion and final evolution of human rights theory and thus that the definition of Constitutionality of certain legislation is an ultimate ruling of universal correctness, as implied by the OP.
I think that the merits and constitutionality of laws are separate questions, so I guess we agree to that extent.

archangelwar posted:

If it is never distributed, it cannot be prosecuted; how else could an aggrieved party bring suit?
Someone will probably correct me with a more accurate explanation, but to simplify things a lot, criminal laws don't necessarily require that an actual harm takes place, or that there was any chance that a harm would take place, only that the act was unlawful. The assumption that the act is harmful, potentially harmful, or even just runs the risk of being harmful in some circumstances, is just taken for granted in the fact that the legislature decided to criminalize it.

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