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I am selling a used car. I put it on CL and a guy who was clearly a dealer came to try and buy it. We agreed on a price and when I asked him to sign the title information for the purchaser he said he didn't want to do it. If I have a bill of sale and his driver ID is there anything that could come back to me? FWIW he seemed shady but what could really go wrong if I had a bill of sale?
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# ¿ Jan 15, 2016 00:31 |
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# ¿ Apr 27, 2024 12:35 |
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IOwnCalculus posted:That's better suited for the stupid questions thread, but no you absolutely do not want to do a sale where the buyer does not immediately retitle the car. This article explains why but in a nutshell, until it is retitled you are still the legal owner of the car, and that means you can be held liable for anything like unpaid parking tickets, impound fees, poo poo like that. That makes sense but if that is the case, can't that still happen even if he does sign everything correctly? It is still technically mine until he or whoever he tries to sell it to gets it retitled at the SOS, right?
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# ¿ Jan 15, 2016 01:17 |
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To give an update, I sought out an official response from the Secretary of State here in Michigan. She said it was illegal to transfer the title without the purchaser filling out all the information and pointed me to a particular statute although I didn't write it down. She also said the potential buyer was "likely a criminal". Advised me the law required a copy of the completely filled out title to be held by the seller.
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# ¿ Jan 15, 2016 20:58 |